1 Show The evolution of several species from a single, each occupying a different niche 2 The survival through apparently altruistic behavior of related individuals with common alleles 3 the establishment of a genetically unique population through genetic drift 4 the independent development of similarities between unrelated groups resulting from adaptation to similar environments 5 In a non-evolving population, allele frequency remains unchanged from generation to generation. 6 Sudden reduction of population. Genetic makeup of survivors not representative of original population. 7 Natural selection favoring intermediate phenotype. Eliminates the extreme but reduces variation. 8 Natural selection where frequency shifts to favor one extreme over another, often due to an environment change. Black bear's size helps heat conservation; peppered moths, snails. 9 Natural selection favoring both extremes over intermediate. Small beaks pick up small seeds, large beaks crack thick seeds. May lead to speciation, balanced polymorphism. 10 A new species of organism has evolved when a. the new climate of a population's area has changed greatly b. a population can no longer interbreed under natural conditions with other closely related organisms c. variation has occurred within the species due to mutations d. a population has recently been isolated from the rest of the species by a geographic barrier e. selection pressures have produced a group of demes 11 Which of the following contributes LEAST to speciation? a. sexual reproduction b. asexual reproduction c. selection d. varation e. isolation 12 The best evidence that the giant panda is more closely related to bears than is the raccoon-like lesser panda involves (A) Comparative anatomy 13 All of the following statements concerning the theory of evolution by natural selection are true EXCEPT: (A) Organisms produce far more offspring than are required for replacement 14 The functional similarity of the mandibles (hinged jaws) of insects and those of mammals is an example of (A) Homology 15 Which of the following best summarizes the theory of punctuated equilibrium? (A) After periods of directional selection, the allelic frequencies in a population will reach equilibrium and then undergo disruptive selection 16 In evolutionary terms, which of the following organisms is the most successful (A) The one that lives the longest 17 In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which of the following can be predicted or the recessive alleles in the population (A) They will eventually disappear 18 A large assemblage of land snails is subdivided into two populations (A and B) by a river that effectively isolates the two populations for an indefinitely long period. From an evolutionary standpoint, which of the following is the LEAST likely to occur in the two populations? (A) Population A and B will eventually differ in their ecological requirements 19 Evolutionary fitness is measured by (A) Physical strength 20  A single substitution in the third position would have the greatest probability of mutational effect on the codon (A) GUU (B) AUU (C) CGU (D) AUG (E) CCC 21 Which amino acid has the greatest number of codons? (A) Leucine (leu) (B) Proline (pro) (C) Tryptophan (trp) (D) Glutamic acid (glu) (E) Aspartic acid (asp) 22 Some geneticists consider the third base of a codon to be less important than the first two bases as a code for a specific amino acid. All of the following observations would support this hypothesis EXCEPT: (A) Any of the bases following a CC_ sequence will position a proline. (B) Even though the A is replaced by a C, the triplet AGG will still position to an arginine. (C) Even though the last A is replaced by a G, the triplet UAA will still terminate a polypeptide chain. (D) An AUU triplet codes for isoleucine, while a UUU triplet codes for phenylalanine. (E) There are three codons, any of which will position an isoleucine. 23 The different species of finches on the Galapagos Islands are believed to have arisen as a result of natural selection acting on populations of finches that had
experienced 24 Coat color in mice is determined by genes at two loci. When black mice from a particular population mate, they produce offspring in the following ratios: 9 black: 3 brown: 4 white. These results suggest that white coat color is expressed as a result of 25 During which of the following time periods could the population have been in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the G locus? (A) I only 26 Assuming that the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the G locus, what percentage of moths in the natural population was white in 1962? 27 Assuming that the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the G locus, what percentage of the gray moths that emerged in 1980 was heterozygous? 28 Assuming that the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the G locus, what was the frequency of allele G in the gray moths that emerged in 1980? 29 Which of the following is the most likely reason for the observed differences in the frequency
of the G allele between 1965 and 1972? 30 A research study sampled populations of field mice annually over the course of 50 years. The population was categorized by coat color. What type of selection is represented? 31 All of the following conditions would result in a change in the frequency of a specific allele in a population EXCEPT 32 In a populaton that is in Hardy-Weingber equilibrium, the frequence of a
recessive allele for a certain hereditary trati is 0.20. 33 In a certain flock of sheep, 4% of the population has black wool and 96% has white wool. Assume that the population is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium. If the black wool is a recessive trait, what pecentage of the population is heterozygous for this trait? 34 In a
small group of people living in a remote area, ther is a hgihg incidence of "blue skin", a condition that results from a variation oin the structure of hemoglobin. 35 Whichy of the following principles is NOT part of DARWIN'S contributions to the theory of
evolution by natural selection? 36 If the population is in Hardy-Weingberg equilibrium, which of the following can be predicted for
the recessive allaeles in the population? 37 Toads in a particular population vary in size. A scientist observes that in this population, large males mate with females significantly more often than small males do. All the following are plausible
hypotheses to explain this observation EXCEPT: 38 The introduction of antibiotics such as penicillin several years ago was immediately effective in (A) the bacteria reproduced
in hosts that were not contaminated with antibiotics 39 The external similarity of
dolphins to sharks is an example of 40 Which of the following statements concerning viruses is FALSE? 41 Which statement concerning viruses is NOT true? a. some viruses contain both single stranded DNA and RNA b. some viruses may contain single stranded RNA c. some viruses contain an enzyme-reverse transcriptase d. some viruses may contain double-stranded DNA e. some viruses contain double stranded RNA 42 The
best evidence that the giant panda is more closely related to bears than is the racoonlike lesser panda involves 43 All of the following statements concerning the theory of evolution by natural selection are true EXCEPT: 44 12. Which discovery provides the best evidence to
support the belief that 45 Which of the following statements is\are TRUE? 46 Which of the following statements is\are TRUE? 47 Which one of the following statements about viruses is incorrect? 48 Which of the following is true of DNA? 49 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning t-RNA? A. it weighs more than m-RNA 50 May contain the four bases adenine, cytocine, thymine, and guanine A. DNA molecules only B. RNA molecules C. Both DNA and RNA molecules D. Neither DNA nor RNA molecules E. Transfer RNA only 51 Is (are) present in the nucleus of the cell A. DNA molecules only B. RNA molecules C. Both DNA and RNA molecules D. Neither DNA nor RNA molecules E. Transfer RNA only 52 Consists(s) of chains of nucleotides A. DNA molecules only B. RNA molecules C. Both DNA and RNA molecules D. Neither DNA nor RNA molecules E. Transfer RNA only 53 Convey(s) genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosomes A. DNA molecules only B. RNA molecules C. Both DNA and RNA molecules D. Neither DNA nor RNA molecules E. Transfer RNA only 54 non coding segments of DNA interspersed between the coding segments 55 a segment of a DNA or RNA molecule containing information coding for a protein or peptide sequence. 56 the haploid set of chromosomes in a gamete or microorganism, or in each cell of a multicellular organism. 57 a structural unit of a eukaryotic chromosome, consisting of a length of DNA coiled around a core of histones. 58 A molecule that increases enzyme activity or a protein that increases the production of a gene product in DNA replication. 59 A sequence of three adjacent nucleotides, binds complementary nucleotides during translation phase during protein synthesis 60 One can infer from these data that (A) the data reported for adenine, guanine,. cytosine, and thymine represent their relative percentages in the DNA of the cell (B) the DNA was extracted from the cell nuclei with an ultracentrifuge (C) the purine and pyrimidine contain nitrogen, but the sugar and phosphate do not (D) inasmuch as the sums of the relative amounts of the molecular components are not always 100%, the data from this experiment are not valid (E) the DNA of some of the cell nuclei is in the form of a single helix 61 Which of the following conclusions CANNOT be drawn from the data? (A) The amount of guanine is about equal to the amount of cytosine in human liver and thymus cells. (B) The total amount of sugar and phosphate in the DNA molecule is approximately equal to the total amount of purines and pyrimidines. (C) The amount of adenine is about the same as the amount of thymine in all of the cells studied. (D) Guanine represents about one-fifth of the total purine and pyrimidine content of DNA. (E) The highest amount of adenine is found in the nucleus of T2 bacteriophage. 62 Which of the following statements is NOT justified by the data? (A) The amounts of adenine and thymine in any of the nuclei are approximately equal. (B) The relative amounts of sugar and phosphate are nearly constant regardless of the type of cell studied. (C) The DNA of human thymus cells has approximately the same content of guanine and cytosine as the DNA of human liver cells. (D) Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine have different arrangements within the DNA molecule in yeast cells from that in T2 bacteriophage. (E) The amount of guanine plus cytosine in T2 bacteriophage is about half the amount of the adenine plus thymine. 63 64 Arctic foxes typically have a white coat in the winter. In summer, when there is no snow on the ground, the foxes typically have a darker coat. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the seasonal change in coat color? (A) The decrease in the amount of daylight in winter causes a change in gene expression, which results in the foxes growing a lighter- appearing coat. (B) The diet of the foxes in summer lacks a particular nutrient, which causes the foxes to lose their white coat and grow a darker- colored coat. (C) Competition for mates in the spring causes each fox to increase its camouflage with the environment by producing a darker- appearing coat. (D) The lower temperatures in winter denature the pigment molecules in the arctic fox coat, causing the coat to become lighter in color. 65 Which of the following is NOT found in every nucleic acid? 66 Testosterone oxido-reductase is a liver enzyme that regulates testosterone levels in alligators. One study compared testosterone oxido-reductase activity between male and female alligators from Lake Woodruff, a relatively pristine environment, and from Lake Apopka, an area that has suffered severe contamination. The graph above depicts the findings of the study. The data in the graph best support which of the following claims? a. Environmental contamination elevates total testosterone oxido-reductase activity in
females. 67 The bones of a human arm are homologous to structures in all of the following EXCEPT a 68 Which of the following features of angiosperms has
probably contributed most to their evolutionary success relative to all other land plant groups? 69 Which of the following features of angiosperms has probably contributed most to their evolutionary success relative to all other land plant groups? 70 The wing of a bat, the flipper of a whale, and the forelimb of a horse appear very different, yet detailed studies reveal the presence of the same basic bone pattern. These structures are examples of B Homologous: it's when very different animals have bones that appear very similar in form or function and seem to be related Analogous: Species may also have similar traits even though they are not related to each other. EX: Animals such as penguins and fish both have fin-like structures to help them navigate through their aquatic environments 71 Although the seal and the penguin both have streamlined, fishlike bodies with a layer of insulating fat, they are not closely related. This similarity results from 72 Which of the following is probably the best explanation for the fact that Antarctica penguins cannot fly, although there is evidence that millions of years ago their ancestors could do so? 73 Which of the following is
probably the best explanation for the fact that Antarctica penguins cannot fly, although there is evidence that millions of years ago their ancestors could do so? 74 4. The external similarity of dolphins to sharks is an example of 75 In a certain flock of sheep, 4% of the population has black wool and 96% has white wool. Assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If black wool is a recessive trait, what percentage of the population is heterozygous for this trait? 76 In a certain flock of sheep, 4% of the population has black wool and 96% has white wool. Assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. What percentage of the population is homozygous for white wool? 77 In humans, the HIV virus primarily attacks which of the following types of cells? 78 A biologist counted 2,500 cells from an embryo on a microscope slide and recorded the following data. Stage Number of Cells If these cells had been dividing randomly, it could be reasonably concluded that 79
he different species of finches on the Galapagos Islands are believed to have arisen as a result of natural selection acting on populations of finches that had experienced 80 9) AIDS is caused by the retrovirus HIV, which makes DNA complementary to the viral RNA using 81 Which of the following best describes why the polymerase chain reaction is a standard technique used in molecular biology research? 82 Certain metabolic pathways are affected by the buildup of a product which interacts with 83 Which of the following can be diagnosed by examining a karyotype of an individual's 84 A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained. 85 A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained. 112. Which of the following is true of the dye used to stain the fragments? (A) It increases the contrast between the agar and the DNA fragments. 86 A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained. 113. The type and density of the gel are important because 87 A student uses restriction enzymes to cut a DNA molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained. 114. The procedures described can be used to do all of the following EXCEPT 88 .In the 1940's, Avery, MacCleod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into 89 In the
1940's, Avery, MacCleod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into 90 In the 1940's, Avery, MacCleod, and McCarty transformed nonencapsulated bacteria into 91 Which of the following exist as RNA surrounded by a protein coat? 92 . transcription 93 A. transcription 94 A. transcription 95 A. transcription 96 97 Enzyme used in the synthesis of mRNA a. DNA ligase b. DNA polyerase c. RNA polymerase d. Nuclease e. single-strand binding protein 98 Enzyme used during replication to attach Okazaki fragments to each other a. DNA ligase b. DNA polyerase c. RNA polymerase d. Nuclease e. single-strand binding protein 99 Enzyme that removes damaged DNA to have it replaced with new DNA a. DNA ligase b. DNA polyerase c. RNA polymerase d. Nuclease e. single-strand binding protein 100 Enzyme used to position nucleotides during DNA replication a. DNA ligase b. DNA polyerase c. RNA polymerase d. Nuclease e. single-strand binding protein 101 Select the molecule that best fits the numbered statement. Letters may be used more than once or not at all:
Carries the transcribed genetic code sequence 102 Select the molecule that best fits the numbered statement. Letters may be used more than once or not at all:
Contains codons 103 Select the molecule that best fits the numbered statement. Letters may be used more than once or not at all:
104 Select the molecule that best fits the numbered statement. Letters may be used more than once or not at all:
Reads the codons to find a match 105 Select the molecule that best fits the numbered statement. Letters may be used more than once or not at all:
Contains no uracil 106 107 108 A. Nonsense codon B. anticodon C. ribosome d. exon e. poly A Tail Protein synthesis termination triplet 109 A. Nonsense codon B. anticodon C. ribosome d. exon e. poly A Tail Site of protein synthesis 110 A. Nonsense codon B. anticodon C. ribosome d. exon e. poly A Tail Base sequence on messenger RNA that aids its transport across the nuclear envelope 111 A. Nonsense codon B. anticodon C. ribosome d. exon e. poly A Tail triplet on tRNA What triggers the change in coat color of the arctic fox?Over the winter the arctic fox has a heavy white coat, but when early summer temperatures begin to melt the snow cover, the coat is shed for a thinner, two-tone brown pelage. White fur not only provides camouflage in winter but adds warmth.
Which of the following mutations is the most likely cause of sickle cell anemia?Causes. Mutations in the HBB gene cause sickle cell disease. The HBB gene provides instructions for making one part of hemoglobin. Hemoglobin consists of four protein subunits, typically, two subunits called alpha-globin and two subunits called beta-globin.
Which of the following best describes a likely result of tropical rain forest deforestation?Which of the following best describes a likely result of tropical rain forest deforestation? a. Populations of plants and animals will decrease as more rain forest disappears, leading to a decrease in biodiversity.
What is the best explanation for the pink flowered offspring?What is the best explanation for the pink-flowered offspring? Blue flowers are incompletely dominant to pink flowers. Pink flower color is a trait recessive to blue flower color. Pink flower color is the result of somatic mutations in the flower color gene.
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