Which of the following statements is true about marking on a normative basis?

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Previous LET Questions and Rationalization in Assessment of Learning I

Which of the following statements is true about marking on a normative basis?

Previous LET Questions and Rationalization in Assessment of Learning I

Which of the following statements is true about marking on a normative basis?
Which of the following statements is true about marking on a normative basis?

  1. 1. 1. Teacher Ryan conducted a short quiz after discussing the topic “Item Analysis”, to get feedback on how much the students learned which may not be used for grading purposes is classified as a ____________. a. Placement assessment c. Formative Assessment b. Summative assessment d. Diagnostic Assessment Answer:
  2. 2. 2. The criterion of success of Teacher RC in his lesson is that “the students must be able to get 85% of the test items correctly”. Luis and 29 other students in the class answered only 33 out of 40 items correctly. This means that teacher RC _____________. a. attained his lesson objective because of his effective problem solving drills. b. did not attain his lesson objective because his students lack of attention. c. attained his lesson objective. d. did not attain his lesson objective as far as the 30 students are concerned Answer
  3. 3. 3. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test item, which of the following should be done? a. Make the options homogenous b. Make the stem short and clear. c. Make it grammatically correct. d. Make the options equal in length. Answer
  4. 4. 4. Teacher Y set 85% accuracy in a test on predicting the kind of weather given five different atmospheric conditions. Marivic obtained a score of 82% can be interpreted as _________. a. she obtained 82% percentile score. b. she did not meet the set standard by 3% c. she is higher than 82% of the group d. she is 3% short of the set percentile score. Answer
  5. 5. 5. Teacher Anne gave a test at the end of a lesson to find out if the objectives of her lesson have been attained. This can be classified as _____________. a. Placement assessment b. Curricular assessment c. Norm-referenced d. Criterion-referenced Answer
  6. 6. 6. What are the characteristics of a good assessment instrument? I. Objectivity II. Validity III. Practicality and Efficiency IV. Reliability a. I,II,IV b. II, IV c. I,II,III d. I,II,III,IV Answer
  7. 7. 7. Teacher Ace wants to establish the reliability of his test in Biology. Which of the following will he accomplish? I. Administer a parallel test. II. Split the test III. Construct a variety of items. IV. Administer the same test twice. Answer a. I, III, IV b. I, II, IV c. I, II d. IV
  8. 8. 8. Teacher Nancy constructed a matching type test item. In her column of descriptions are combinations of presidents, current issues, and sports. Which rule of constructing a matching type test item was NOT followed? a. The options must be greater than the descriptions. b. The descriptions must be homogeneous. c. The descriptions must heterogeneous. d. Arrange the options according to order. Answer
  9. 9. 9. Teacher MJ give a 59-item test in English where the mean performance of the group is 40 and the standard deviation is 6. Markie obtained a score of 45. Which of the following best describe his performance? a. Below average c. Above average b. Average d. Outstanding Answer
  10. 10. 10. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group when we talk about projective personality test? a. Sentence completion test. b. Interview c. Word association test d. Thematic Apperception test Answer
  11. 11. 11. Which of the following is the main purpose of administering a pre-test and post-test to the students? a. Measure the value of the materials used. b. Accustom the students in frequent testing. c. Measure gains in learning. d. Measure the effectiveness of instruction. Answer
  12. 12. 12. Teacher G discovered that his students are weak in grammar. Which assessment procedure should Teacher G administer to further determine in which other skills his students are weak? a. Placement Assessment c. Diagnostic Assessment b. Summative Assessment d. Formative Assessment Answer
  13. 13. 13. Teacher K conducted a test in MAKABAYAN IV, in her item number 13 it is said to be non-discriminating. What can be said about this item? I. The item is very difficult that nobody got the correct answer. II. Teaching or learning is very good. III. The item is very easy and everybody got it right. a. I only b. I and II c. I and III d. III only Answer
  14. 14. 14. A portfolio assessment requires a presentation of a collection of student’s work. What is the purpose of the said activity? I. The showcase the current abilities and skills of the learners. II. To show growth and development of the learners. III. To evaluate the cumulative achievement of the learners. a. I,II and III b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III Answer
  15. 15. 15. Which of the following is/are true about matching type test? I. The descriptions and options must be homogeneous. II. The options at the first column and the descriptions at the second column. III. The number of options must be greater than the number of descriptions. IV. There must be at least three items. a. I only b. I and III c. I,II,III d. I,III and IV Answer
  16. 16. 16. Which statement is true in a bell-shaped curve? a. There are more high scores than low scores. b. Most of the scores are high. c. The scores are normally distributed. d. There are more low scores than high scores. Answer
  17. 17. 17. Jay R’s raw score in Mathematics class is 94 which is equal to 97th percentile. What does this mean? a. 97% of Jay R’s classmates got a score higher than 94. b. 97% of Jay R’s classmates got a score lower than 94. c. Jay R’s score is less than 97% of his classmates. d. Jay R is higher than 97% of his classmates. Answer
  18. 18. 18. The discrimination index of a test item is 0.35. What does this mean? a. More students in the lower group got the item correctly than those students in the upper group. b. More students in the upper group got the item correctly than those students in the lower group. c. The number of students in the lower group and upper group who got the item correctly are equal. d. More students from the upper group got the item incorrectly. Answer
  19. 19. 19. Which of the following statement/s is/are important in developing a scoring rubrics? I. Description of each criterion to serve a standard. II. Very clear descriptions of performance in each level. III. Rating scale. IV. Mastery levels of achievement a. I only b. I and II c. I,II,III d. I,II,III,IV Answer
  20. 20. 20. Teacher A is talking about “grading on the curve” in a district meeting. What does this mean? a. A student grade determines whether or not a student attains a defined standard of achievement. b. A student grade tells how closely he is achieving to his potential. c. A student grade compares his achievement to his effort. d. A student grade depends on how achievement compares with the achievements of other students in a class. Answer
  21. 21. 21. Which of the statement best describes norm-referenced interpretation? a. BJ performed better in Mathematics than 85% of his classmates. b. BJ was able to get 60% of the items correctly. c. BJ got 40 items correctly out of 50 items. d. BJ was able to answer his test in 45 minutes only. Answer
  22. 22. 22. Which of the following instructional objectives is the highest level of Bloom’s cognitive taxonomy? a. Compute the standard deviation value: 25, 27, 30, 33, & 36. b. Identify the kinds of measure of variation. c. Compare and contrast quartile deviation and standard deviation. d. Explain the concept of variation. Answer
  23. 23. 23. Teacher DJ wants to test his student’s ability to formulate ideas, which type of test should he formulate? a. Completion type b. Matching-type c. Multiple-choice answer d. Essay Answer
  24. 24. 24. Which is the first step in planning periodic test? a. Select the type of test item to use. b. Construct a table of specification. c. God back to the instructional objectives. d. Determine the group of whom the test is intended. Answer
  25. 25. 25. Below is a list of method used to establish the reliability to a test, which method is questionable due to practice and familiarity? a. Split half b. Equivalent form c. Kuder Richardson d. Test-retest Answer
  26. 26. 26. Teacher BJ wrote about Ryan:” When Ryan came to class this morning, he seemed very tired and slouched into his seat. He took no part in his class discussion and seemed to have no interest in what was discussed. This was very unusual for he has been eager to participate and often monopolizes the class discussion. What Teacher BJ wrote is an example of a/an ______. a. anecdotal report c. personality report b. observation report d. incidence report Answer
  27. 27. 27. About how many percent of the cases fall between -2SD and +2SD in the normal curve? a. 34.13 b. 68.26 c. 95.44 d. 99.72 Answer
  28. 28. 28. Teacher Luis found out that more from the lower group got item #16 correctly in his item analysis. This means that the test item has ___________. a. negative discriminating power b. low validity c. positive discriminating power d. zero discriminating power Answer
  29. 29. 29. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based? a. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment. b. Assessment should stress the reproduction knowledge. c. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score. d. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score. Answer
  30. 30. 30. What is the meaning of TOS in the parlance of test construction? a. Table of Specifics c. Table of Specific Test b. Table of Specifications d. Table of Subject Answer
  31. 31. 31. Which is implied by a positively skewed score distribution? a. The mean, the median and the mode are equal. b. Most of the scores are high. c. The mode is high. d. Most of the scores are low. Answer
  32. 32. 32. Which statement best describes a negatively skewed score distribution? a. Most examinees got high scores. b. The value of median and mode are equal. c. The value of mode corresponds to a low score. d. The value of median is higher than the value of mode. Answer
  33. 33. 33. In a normal distribution, a T-score of 70 is ___________. a. two SDs below the mean c. one SD below the mean b. two SDs above the mean d. one SD above the mean Answer
  34. 34. 34. The computer value of r for Math and Science is 0.92. What does this mean? a. Math and Science scores are inversely related. b. High scores in Math are associated with high scores in Science. c. Low scores in math are associated with high scores in Science. d. The higher the scores in Science, the lower the scores in Math. Answer
  35. 35. 35. Teacher B is researching on family income distribution which is symmetrical. Which measure/s of central tendency will be most informative and appropriate? a. Mode b. Mean c. Median d. Mean and Median Answer
  36. 36. 36. What measure/s of central tendency does the number 20 represent in the following score distribution? 25, 15, 17, 20,23, 18, 20, 24? a. Mode only c. Mode and Median b. Median only d. Mean and mode Answer
  37. 37. 37. The Analysis of Variance utilizing the F-test is appropriate to test the significant difference between _____________. a. frequencies c. median b. two means only d. three or more means Answer
  38. 38. 38. Which statement about standard deviation is CORRECT? a. The smaller the standard deviation the more spread the scores are. b. The larger the standard deviation the less spread the scores are. c. The larger the standard deviation the more spread the score are. d. It is measure of central tendency. Answer
  39. 39. 39. Teacher Ryan Christopher gave a summative test. In which competency did his students find the greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of ________________. a. 0.09 b. 1.0 c. 0.75 d. 0.45 Answer
  40. 40. 40. Teacher Kristy conducted an item analysis is her Chapter examination, she found out that the difficulty index of item 20 is 0.45 and the discrimination index is 0.33. What should the teacher do with this item? a. Reject the item c. Revise the item b. Retain the item d. Make the item bonus Answer
  41. 41. Situation A. Study this group of test which was administered to a class whom Ritz Glenn belongs, then answer the questions(41-43). Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Score Standard deviation (s) Math 90 85 1.5 English 95 97 2.0 PEHM 94 92 1.75 41. In which subject/s did Ritz Glenn performed well? a. Math b. Math and English c. English d. PEHM Answer
  42. 42. Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Score Standard deviation (s) Math 90 85 1.5 English 95 97 2.0 PEHM 94 92 1.75 42. What type of learner is Ritz Glenn? a. logical and bodily kinaesthetic. b. logical c. linguistic d. bodily kinaesthetic Answer
  43. 43. Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Score Standard deviation (s) Math 90 85 1.5 English 95 97 2.0 PEHM 94 92 1.75 43. In which group of scores most spread? a. Math and PEHM B. Math c. English d. PEHM Answer
  44. 44. 44. The score distribution of Set A and Set B have equal mean but with different SD’s. Set A has SD of 2.75 while Set B has SD of 3.25. Which statement is TRUE of the score distributions? a. Majority of the scores in Set B are clustered around the mean. b. Majority of the scores is Set A are clustered around the mean than in set B. c. Scores in Set A are more widely scattered. d. The scores of Set B has less variability than the scores in Set A. Answer
  45. 45. Situation B. Study the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracters based on the results of a try-out test in Science. The letter marked with an asterisk is the correct answer. Item No. 1 A B C D* Upper 27% 3 3 1 8 Lower 27% 5 1 6 3 45. The table shows that the test item analyzed ______________. a. has a positive discrimination index. b. has a negative discrimination index. c. is easy d. is difficult Answer
  46. 46. Item No. 1 A B C D* Upper 27% 3 3 1 8 Lower 27% 5 1 6 3 46. Based on the table, which is most effective distracter? a. Option A b. Option B c. Option C d. Option D Answer
  47. 47. Item No. 1 A B C D* Upper 27% 3 3 1 8 Lower 27% 5 1 6 3 47. What is the difficulty level of the given item? a. Easy c. Difficult b. Moderately Difficult d. Very difficult Answer
  48. 48. Item No. 1 A B C D* Upper 27% 3 3 1 8 Lower 27% 5 1 6 3 48. Based on the table, what should you do with the test item? a. make the item bonus c. retain the item b. reject the item d. revise the item Answer
  49. 49. 49. Which of the following statements are components of the grading system based on Dep Ed Order 33, series of 2004? I. The lowest failing grade appeared in the report card is 65%. II. Transmutation table is utilized in the computation of grade. III. Mastery of at least 75% of the competencies. IV. Use table of equivalence in the computation of grade. V. Cumulative system for final grade is utilized. a. I, III, IV b. I, II, III, IV c. II, IV, V d. I, II, III, IV, V Answer
  50. 50. 50. JP’s scores in English quizzes are as follows: 96, 90, 85, 89, 65, 99, 84, 82. What is the mean value? a. 83. 25 b. 84. 25 c. 85. 25 d. 86.25 Answer
  51. 51. 51. Teacher Adrian will construct an achievement test. Which of the following he will accomplish first? a. Construct relevant test items. b. Prepare table of specification. c. Determine the number of items to be constructed. d. Identify the intended learning outcomes. Answer
  52. 52. Situation A (For item 52-53) Direction: Column A describes events associated with U.S presidents, inventor, civil right leader. Indicate which name in Column B matches each event by placing the appropriate letter to the left of the number to Column A. Each name may be used once only. Column A Column B 1. President of the 20th Century A. Lincoln 2. Invented the telephone B. Nixon 3. Delivered the Emancipation Proclamation C. Whitney 4. Recent president to resign from office D. Ford 5. Civil rights leader E. Bell 6. Invented the cotton gin F. King 7. Our first president G. Washington 8. Only president elected for more than H. Roosevelt two terms. 52. Which guideline of writing matching type item was NOT FOLLOWED? a. It is very difficult test items. b. Consist of less than ten items. c. It is NOT valid test items. d. It is NOT homogeneous. Answer
  53. 53. Column A Column B 1. President of the 20th Century A. Lincoln 2. Invented the telephone B. Nixon 3. Delivered the Emancipation Proclamation C. Whitney 4. Recent president to resign from office D. Ford 5. Civil rights leader E. Bell 6. Invented the cotton gin F. King 7. Our first president G. Washington 8. Only president elected for more than H. Roosevelt two terms. 53. Using the data in situation A. How would you improve the options to avoid ambiguity? a. Arrange the options in alphabetical order. b. Add two more options to avoid guessing. c. Write the complete names in the options. d. Remove two options to have valid options. Answer
  54. 54. 54. Which of the following objectives is the highest level of Bloom’s taxonomy? a. Identifies the meaning of term. b. Identifies the order of the given events. c. Interprets the meaning of an idea. d. Improves defective test items. Answer
  55. 55. 55. Which statement/s is/are true in constructing matching type of test? I. The options and descriptions not necessarily homogeneous. II. The options must be greater than the descriptions. III. The directions must state the basis of matching. IV. Descriptions in Column A and options in Column B. a. I, II and III c. I, II and IV b. II, III, and IV d. I, II, III and IV Answer
  56. 56. 56. Which of the following should be AVOIDED in constructing true or false test? I. Verbal clues and specific determiner. II. Terms denoting definite degree or amount. III. Taking statements directly from the book. IV. Keep true and false statement the same in length. a. I and III only c. I, II, and IV b. I, II, and III d. II and IV only Answer
  57. 57. 57. Which of the following test item can best effectively measure higher order of cognitive learning objectives? a. Objective Test c. Completion Test b. Achievement test d. Extended essay test Answer
  58. 58. 58. Which statements best describes a short-answer test items? I. It is easy to write test items. II. Broad range of knowledge outcomes can be measured. III. Adaptable in measuring complex learning outcomes. IV. Scoring is NOT tedious and time consuming. a. I, II and III c. II and IV only b. I and II only d. II, III and IV Answer
  59. 59. Situation B. The data on the table below are results of test which was administered to four subjects in which Ritz Glenn belong. Using the said data answer the questions. (59-63). Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Standard Deviation English 88 85 3.5 Mathematics 95 97 5 Music 90 98 6.5 PE 94 91 4 59. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed best in relation to the performance of the group? a. English b. Music c. Mathematics d. PE Answer
  60. 60. Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Standard Deviation English 88 85 3.5 Mathematics 95 97 5 Music 90 98 6.5 PE 94 91 4 60. What type of learner is Ritz Glenn? a. Bodily Kinesthetic c. Musical b. Logical d. Linguistic Answer
  61. 61. Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Standard Deviation English 88 85 3.5 Mathematics 95 97 5 Music 90 98 6.5 PE 94 91 4 61. In which subject did Ritz Glenn performed mostly poorly in relation to the group performance? a. English c. Mathematics b. Music d. PE Answer
  62. 62. Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Standard Deviation English 88 85 3.5 Mathematics 95 97 5 Music 90 98 6.5 PE 94 91 4 62. In which subject the scores most dispersed? a. English c. Mathematics b. Music d. PE Answer
  63. 63. Subject Ritz Glenn’s Score Mean Standard Deviation English 88 85 3.5 Mathematics 95 97 5 Music 90 98 6.5 PE 94 91 4 63. In which subject the scores less dispersed? a. English c. Mathematics b. Music d. PE Answer
  64. 64. 64. Which statement best describes normal distribution? a. Only few got average scores. b. The mean, the median are equal. c. Negatively skewed distribution. d. Most of the scores lies at one end of the distribution. Answer
  65. 65. 65. Standard deviation is to Measure of Variation as _______ is to Measures of Central Tendency/ a. Quartile Deviation c. Range b. Mean Deviation d. Mode Answer
  66. 66. 66. What type of measure of variation easily affected by the extremes scores? a. Range c. Inter-quartile range b. Quartile Deviation d. Standard deviation Answer
  67. 67. 67. Which measure/s of central tendency easily affected by the extreme scores? a. Median c. Mode b. Mean d. Mean and Median Answer
  68. 68. 68. At type of error committed in grading the performance of the students by the rater who avoids both extremes of the scale and tends to rate everyone as average. a. generosity error c. logical error b. severity error d. central tendency error Answer
  69. 69. 69. What error committed by the rater if he overate the performance of the student/s? a. generosity error c. logical error b. severity error d. central tendency error Answer
  70. 70. 70. Which of the following assessment techniques best assess the objective “Plans and designs an experiment to be performed”. a. paper and pencil test c. Checklist b. Rating scale d. Essay Answer
  71. 71. 71. Teacher Gina is talking about “grading on the curve” in a teacher’s assembly. This means that she’s referring to what type of grading system? a. Cumulative method of grading c. Criterion-reference grading b. Norm-reference grading d. Combination of B and C Answer
  72. 72. 72. The computed value of r=0.95 in Mathematics and English. What does this imply? a. Mathematics score is not related to English score. b. English score is moderately related to Mathematics score. c. Mathematics score is highly positive related to English score. d. English score is not anyway related to Mathematics score. Answer
  73. 73. 73. Teacher Jean will conduct a test “to measure her student’s ability to organize thoughts and present original ideas”. Which of type of test is most appropriate? a. Modified true-false test item c. Short answer test b. Completion type of test d. Essay test Answer
  74. 74. 74. Which characteristics best describes the given score distribution? The scores are: 22, 23, 24, 24, 24, 25, 26, 26, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 39, 39, 40, 40, 45. a. Multi-modal c. Normally distributed c. Bimodal d. Skewed to the left Answer
  75. 75. 75. Which of the following statement refers to criterion- reference interpretation? a. Ritz got the highest score in Mathematics. b. Luis computed the problem solving faster than his classmates. c. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes. d. Lovely’s test score is higher than 95% of the class. Answer
  76. 76. 76. Which of the following is an example of norm- referenced interpretation? a. Lord’s test score is higher than 89% of the class b. Vinci set up his laboratory equipments in 2 minutes. c. Harold must spell 25 words correctly out of 30 words. d. Mark solve 5 problems correctly in 30 minutes. Answer
  77. 77. 77. What is the main advantage of using table of specifications (TOS) when constructing periodic test? a. It increases the reliability of the test results. b. It reduces the scoring time. c. It makes test construction easier. d. It improves the sampling of content areas. Answer
  78. 78. 78. The main objective of testing in teaching is _________________. a. to assess students learning and the effectiveness of instruction. b. to assess the effectiveness of teaching methods used. c. to evaluate the instructional materials used. d. to evaluate the performance of the teacher in that particular lesson. Answer
  79. 79. 79. Which of the following statement is the main reason why should negative words be avoided in constructing multiple-choice test? a. Increase the difficulty of the test item. b. More difficult to construct options. c. Might be overlooked. d. Stems tends to be longer Answer
  80. 80. 80. Obtaining a dependable ranking of students is a major concern when using: a. teacher-made diagnostic test. b. norm-reference test. c. criterion-reference test. d. mastery achievement test. Answer
  81. 81. 81. When a test is lengthened, the reliability is likely to _________? a. increase c. not determined b. decrease d. both A and B Answer
  82. 82. 82. Which of the following statements describes performance based assessment? I. Evaluate complex learning outcomes and skills. II. Encourages the application of learning to “real life” situation. III. Measure broad range of contents. a. I only c. III only b. I and II d. I, II and III Answer
  83. 83. 83. Teacher Adrian conducted item analysis and he found out that more from the lower group got the test item number 6 correctly. This means that the test item ____________. a. has a low reliability b. has a high validity c. has a positive discrimination power d. has a negative discriminating power Answer
  84. 84. 84. Which is implied by a positively skewed score distribution? a. Most of the scores are below the mean value. b. Most of the scores are above the mean value. c. The mean is less than the median. d. The mean, the median and the mode are equal. Answer
  85. 85. 85. Most of the students who took the examination got scores above the mean. What is the graphical representation of the score distribution? a. skewed to the left c. Skewed to the right b. scores are normally distribute d. positively skewed Answer
  86. 86. 86. Which statement best describes a negatively skewed score distribution? a. The value of mean and median are equal. b. Most examinees got scores above the mean. c. The value of mode corresponds to a low score. d. The value of median is higher than the value of mode. Answer
  87. 87. 87. In a normal distribution a T-score of 80 is ____________. a. two SD’s below the mean c. three SD’s below the mean b. two SD’s above the mean d. three SD’s above the mean Answer
  88. 88. 88. The distribution of a class with academically poor students is most likely __________. a. normally distributed c. skewed to the right b. skewed to the left d. leptokurtic Answer
  89. 89. 89. Teacher Paul conducted item analysis and he found out that significantly greater number form the upper group of the class got test item number 10 correctly. This means that the test item ______. a. has negative discriminating power. b. has a positive discriminating power. c. has low reliability. d. has high validity. Answer
  90. 90. 90. Mary Anne obtained a NAT percentile rank of 93. This imply that ______. a. she surpassed in performance 7% of her group. b. she got a score of 93. c. she answered 93 items correctly. d. she surpassed in performance 93% of her fellow examinees. Answer
  91. 91. 91. Based from the two sets of scores below, which statement correctly applies to the two sets of data? Set A: 10, 13, 15, 16, 20 ,25 Set B: 13, 14, 17, 18, 23, 25 a. The range of Set B is 15. b. The range of Set A is 11. c. The scores in Set A are more scattered than those in Set B. d. The scores in Set B are more scattered than those in Set A. Answer
  92. 92. 92. Which of the following statement best describes the incorrect options in item analysis? a. Determining the percentage equivalent of the cut off score. b. Determining the highest score. c. Determining the attractiveness of distracters. d. Determining the cut off score. Answer
  93. 93. 93. Teacher Kristy gave a chapter test, in which competency did her students find greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of____________. a. 0.25 c. 0.75 b. 0.15 d. 1.00 Answer
  94. 94. Scores Number of students 11-15 7 16-20 10 21-25 7 26-30 20 31-35 6 94. Fifty students took 40 items in English, below are their scores. (Items 94 to 95). In which interval the median values lies? a. In the interval 16-20. b. In the interval 26-30. c. Between the interval 16-20 and 21-25. d. In the interval 21-25. Answer
  95. 95. Scores Number of students 11-15 7 16-20 10 21-25 7 26-30 20 31-35 6 95. Based on the data on item number 94, how many percent of the scores lower than 21? a. 14% c. 20% b. 17% d. 34% Answer
  96. 96. 96. Teacher Lawrence gave a test in Mathematics. The facility of item No. 10 is 75%. The best way described item No. 10 is _______. a. very easy item c. average item b. easy item d. difficult item Answer
  97. 97. 97. At the end of the school year, all third year students presented their portfolio in English subject. Students, teachers, and other stakeholders were asked to view and give their comments regarding what was viewed. Which authentic assessment was organized? a. Exhibits c. Conference b. Program d. Seminar Answer
  98. 98. 98. Joseph’s score in Science is 1.5 standard deviation above the mean of his group and 2 standard deviation above Mathematics. What does this mean? a. He excels both in Science and in Mathematics. b. He is better in Mathematics than in Science. c. He is better in Science than in Mathematics. d. He does not excel in both subjects. Answer
  99. 99. 99. The criterion of success in Teacher Jenny objective is that “the students must be able to get 80% of the test items correctly”. Luis and 24 other students in the class answered only 20 out of 25 items correctly. This means that teacher Jenny _____________. a. attained her lesson objective because of her effective problem solving drills. b. did not attain her lesson objective because her students lack of attention. c. attained her lesson objective. d. did not attain her lesson objective as far as the 25 students are concerned. Answer
  100. 100. 100. The grading system of Department of Education is averaging. What is the average final grade of Andie in English for four grading periods? 1st Grading 2nd Grading 3rd Grading 4th Grading Final Rating 90 88 93 95 ? a. 91.75 c. 94.00 b. 92.25 d. 95.00 Answer
  101. 101. 101. The grading method which gives weight to the present grade and the previous grade of the student such as =1/3(TGG) + 2/3(FGG) Final Grade is called __________. a. Averaging c. Norm referenced b. Criterion referenced d. Cumulative Answer
  102. 102. 102. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test item, which of the following should be done? a. Make the stem short and clear. b. Make the options homogeneous. c. Make it grammatically correct. d. Make the options equal in length. Answer
  103. 103. Situation C. (Item number 103 to 110). Given the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracters based on the results of a try-out test in English. The letter mark with an asterisk is the correct answer. Item No. 10 A* B C D Upper 27% 16 3 10 1 Lower 27% 14 6 8 2 103. Based on the table, which group got more correct answer? a. Lower group c. Can’t be determined b. Upper group d. Either lower group or upper group Answer
  104. 104. Item No. 10 A* B C D Upper 27% 16 3 10 1 Lower 27% 14 6 8 2 104. The table shows that the item analysed has _________. a. Positive discriminating index. b. Negative discriminating index. c. zero discriminating index. d. high reliability index. Answer
  105. 105. Item No. 10 A* B C D Upper 27% 16 3 10 1 Lower 27% 14 6 8 2 105. Based on the table in Situation C, which is the most effective distracters? a. Option A c. Option C b. Option B d. Option D Answer
  106. 106. Item No. 10 A* B C D Upper 27% 16 3 10 1 Lower 27% 14 6 8 2 106. Base on the table in Situation C, which distracters should be revised? a. Option A c. Option C b. Option B d. Option D Answer
  107. 107. Item No. 10 A* B C D Upper 27% 16 3 10 1 Lower 27% 14 6 8 2 107. What is the level of difficulty of item 6 in Situation C? a. very easy c. moderately difficult b. easy d. difficult Answer
  108. 108. Item No. 10 A* B C D Upper 27% 16 3 10 1 Lower 27% 14 6 8 2 108. What is the discriminating index of item number 6 in situation C? a. 3% c. 7% b. 6% d. 50% Answer
  109. 109. 109. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE? a. They stress on process as well as product. b. They also stress on doing, not only knowing. c. Essay test are example of performance-base assessments. d. They emphasize merely on process. Answer
  110. 110. 110. A Z-scores provide information about the location of the raw scores _________. a. below the mean in units of the range of the distribution; b. above the mean in units of the standard deviation of the distribution; c. above and below the mean in units of the range of the distribution; d. above and below the mean in standard deviation units from the mean. Answer
  111. 111. 111. Assessment is said to be authentic when the teacher ____________. a. considers student’s suggestions in testing. b. gives valid and reliable paper-and-pencil test. c. gives students real-life tasks to accomplish. d. includes parents in the determination of assessment procedures. Answer
  112. 112. 112. If teacher Jerick Ivan wants to test his student’s synthesizing skills. Which of the following has the highest diagnostic value? a. Completion test c. Essay test b. Performance test d. Multiple choice test Answer
  113. 113. 113. Which of the following statement about marking on a normative basis? a. the normal distribution curve should be followed. b. most of the students get low scores. c. most of the students get high scores. d. the grading should based from the given criteria. Answer
  114. 114. 114. The discriminating index of item number 15 is 0.44. This means that _____________. a. more students from the upper group got the item correctly. b. more students from the lower group got the item correctly. c. equal number of students got the correct answer form the upper and lower group. d. the test item is very easy. Answer
  115. 115. 115. The difficulty index of item 20 is 0.55 and the discrimination index is 0.15. What should the teacher do with this item? a. Reject the item c. Revise the item b. Retain the item d. Make the item bonus Answer
  116. 116. 116. The discriminating index of item number 1 is -0.15. This means that ______. a. More students from the upper group got the item correctly. b. More students from the lower group got the item correctly. c. Equal number of students got the correct answer from the upper and lower group. d. The test item is very difficult. Answer
  117. 117. 117. Suppose that a certain aptitude test administered to a randomly selected group of college students had a mean of 8- and standard deviation of 5. If BJ got a z-score of 3, what is the value of his raw score? a. 80 c. 90 b. 85 d. 95 Answer
  118. 118. 118. About how many percent of the case fall between -1SD and +1SD in the normal curve? a. 99.72 c. 68.26 b. 95.44 d. 34.13 Answer
  119. 119. 119. In research, t-test is appropriate to test the significant difference between: a. frequencies c. two mean only b. median d. three or more means Answer
  120. 120. 120. Skewed score distribution means: a. The scores are normally distributed b. The mean and the median are equal. c. The mode, the mean, and the median are equal. d. The scores are concentrated more at one end or the other end. Answer
  121. 121. 121. Teacher Anne give achievement test to her 30 students. The test consists of the 25 items. She wants to compare her students’ performance based on the test results. What is the appropriate measure for the position? a. Percentage c. z-score b. Percentile rank d. Standard nine Answer
  122. 122. 122. Student J was asked to report to the Guidance Office. Student J and his classmates at once remarked: “What’s wrong?” What does this mean? a. reporting to a Guidance Office is often associated with misbehavior. b. The parents of student J must be of the delinquent type. c. Student J is a “problem” student. d. Guidance counsellors are perceived to be “almighty and omniscient”. Answer
  123. 123. 123. Which of the following statements is one of the strength of an autobiography as a technique for personality appraisal? a. It can replace data obtained from other data gathering technique. b. It may be read by unauthorized people. c. It gives complete data about the author. d. It makes possible presentation of intimate experiences. Answer
  124. 124. 124. The counselee revealed that she will commit suicide on weekend. Can the counsellor reveal the secret to the parents? a. Yes, it is mandatory that in cases involving suicide that confidentiality is superseded. b. No, the counsellor has no right. c. Yes as long as he tells the parents that he is not the source. d. No, It is unethical. Answer
  125. 125. 125. This is the pre-planned collection of sample of student works, assessed results and other output produced by the students. a. Diary c. Observation Report b. Portfolio d. Anecdotal Report Answer
  126. 126. 1. Answer: C. Formative Assessment is given during or after instruction to improve learning and to get feedback from the performance or achievement of the students. Back
  127. 127. Answer: D. Exactly 82.5% of the students got the items correctly. Hence teacher RC did not attain his objectives Back
  128. 128. Answer: A. To increase the difficulty of a multiple-choice test item, make options in the same class or it must be homogeneous. Back
  129. 129. Answer: B. The standard set by Teacher Y is 85% and Marivic obtained 82% only, hence she did not meet the standard by 3% Back
  130. 130. Answer: D. Criterion-referenced is a type of assessment in which the performance of the students compared to a certain standard or criterion. In this case, the performance of the students will be compared to the instructional objectives of the teacher. Back
  131. 131. Answer: D. Objectivity, validity, practically and efficiency, reliability are all characteristics of a good assessment instrument. Back
  132. 132. Answer: B. Statements I, II and IV are the different methods of establishing reliability of a test. Back
  133. 133. Answer: B. In developing a matching type test item, the descriptions and options must be homogeneous. Back
  134. 134. Answer: C. Mean performance is 40, standard deviation is 6 and Markie’s score is 45. The score of Markie is within Mean +1standard deviation which is 46 hence his performance is above average. The score of Markie is above the mean. Back
  135. 135. Answer: B. Sentence completion test, Word association test, Thematic Apperception test are all projective personality test while interview cannot be considered a test perse. Back
  136. 136. Answer: C. The main purpose of administering a pre-test and post- test is to measure the gains of learning. Back
  137. 137. Answer: B. Diagnostic assessment is a form of assessment in which one of the purposes is to determine the strengths and weaknesses of the students. Back
  138. 138. Answer: C. Non discriminating item is an item that can’t discriminate the lower performing group of students and upper performing students. Hence, if nobody got the correct answer or everybody got the correct answer the item is said to be non discriminating. Back
  139. 139. Answer: A. Statements I, II, and III describes the purposes of portfolio assessment. Back
  140. 140. Answer: D. Statements I, III and IV are all guidelines in developing a matching type of test. Back
  141. 141. Answer: C. Bell-shape curve means that the scores are normally distributed. Back
  142. 142. Answer: B. This can be written as P97 = 94 meaning 97% of Jay R’s classmate got a score lower than 94. Back
  143. 143. Answer: B. Discriminating Index = 0.35, which means that it is positive discrimination. Meaning, more students from the upper group got the item correctly than those students from the lower group. Back
  144. 144. Answer: D. Statement I, II, III and IV are all important in developing scoring rubrics. Back
  145. 145. Answer: Grading on the curve means, the performance of the students in a certain test is relative to the performance of the other students. In other words, the performance of a certain student is compared to the performance of the other students. Back
  146. 146. Answer: A. Norm–referenced interpretation means, comparing the performance of the students relative to the performance of others. The statement, BJ performed better in Mathematics than 85% of his classmate means that BJ got a score higher than 85% of his classmates. Back
  147. 147. Answer: C. Compare and contrast quartile deviation and standard deviation is a synthesis level of cognitive domain. Back
  148. 148. Answer: D. Essay test allows students to organize ideas in accordance with their judgement about a certain topic. Option A, B and C are types of test that do not need further explanation. Back
  149. 149. Answer: C. The first step in constructing a test is to go back to the instructional objectives. Back
  150. 150. Answer: D. Test-retest allows the students to memorize the contents of the test because the same test given twice to same group of students. Back
  151. 151. Answer: A. Anecdotal reports are notes written by the teacher regarding incidents at the classroom that might needs special attention in the future. Back
  152. 152. Answer: C. The area of the normal curve from -2SD to +2SD is approximately 95.44%. Illustration, from mean to 1SD is 34.13%; from mean to -1SD is also 34.13%. From 1SD to 2SD is 13.59% ; from -1SD to -2SD is 13.59%. Thus, the area under the normal curve is 34.13% + 34.13%+13.59% = 95.44%. Back
  153. 153. Answer: A. Negative discrimination means that more students from the lower group got an item correctly than those students in the upper group. Back
  154. 154. Answer: A. Portfolio assessment is a process of gathering multiple indicators of student progress to support course objectives in dynamic, ongoing and collaborative process. Back
  155. 155. Answer: B. TOS means Table of Specifications Back
  156. 156. Answer: D. Positively skewed distribution means most of the students got low scores. Back
  157. 157. Answer: A. Negatively skewed described a good performance of the students. The students performed well because most of the examinees got high scores. Back
  158. 158. Answer: B. Using the formula T score = 10z + 50 and solve for z by substitution. The value of z=2, which means that the distance from the mean is twice the standard deviation. Back
  159. 159. Answer: B. The computed r=0.92 which means that high positive correlation. The higher the scores in Mathematics, the higher scores in Science. Back
  160. 160. Answer: B. Mean is appropriate when the distribution is symmetrical while median is appropriate when the distribution is skewed. Back
  161. 161. Answer: B. The number 20 in the distribution represents mode and median at the same time. Back
  162. 162. Answer: D. ANOVA using F test is statistical tool that is used to test the significant difference between three or more means. Back
  163. 163. Answer: C. Standard deviation can be said that, the larger the value of the standard deviation, on the average the scores are far from the mean value, thus scores are more scattered. On the other hand, the smaller the value of the standard deviation on the average the scores are closer to the mean value, thus the scores are clustered around the mean. Back
  164. 164. Answer: A. An item with difficulty index ranges 0-0.20, the difficulty level is very difficult. Hence, the students find greatest difficulty index of 0.09. Only 9% got the correct answer. Back
  165. 165. Answer: B. The difficulty level is moderately difficult and the discriminating level is discriminating, Therefore, the item should be retained. Back
  166. 166. Answer: A. Ritz Glenn performed well in Math because the z-score in math = 3.33 which means that his score is 3.33 standard deviations above the mean. While z-score in English =-1. z-score in PEHM – 1.14. Back
  167. 167. Answer: B. Ritz Glenn is a logical type of learner because he performed well in math. Back
  168. 168. Answer: C. The scores of the students in English is most spread because the CV in English = 2.06%, while CV of Math = 1.76% and CV of PEHM = 1.90%. While the scores in Math is less dispersed. Back
  169. 169. Answer: B. The SD of A=2.75, SD of B=3.25 and the mean are equal. Therefor, the scores in Set A is more clustered around the mean than in Set B. The smaller the value of SD, on the average the scores are closer to the mean. Back
  170. 170. Answer: A. The test analyzed has a positive discrimination index because more students got the answer correctly. There are 8 students from the upper group got the item correctly. Back
  171. 171. Answer: C. Option C is the most effective distracter because there are more students from the lower group choose the incorrect options Back
  172. 172. Answer: C. The level of difficulty is difficult because the difficulty index is 0.37 Back
  173. 173. Answer: C. Retain the test because the difficulty index = 0.37 and discriminating index = 0.33 which is within the acceptable level. Back
  174. 174. Answer: A. Statements I, III and IV are all guidelines in the Grading System of Dep. Ed. Back
  175. 175. Answer: D. The sum of all the scores is 690 divided by 8 equal to 86.25. Hence, the mean or average value is 86.25. Back
  176. 176. Answer: D. The first step in constructing test items is to identify the learning outcomes or go back to the instructional objectives. Back
  177. 177. Answer: D. The descriptions and options are not homogeneous, it consist of three groups: name of presidents, name of inventors and name of civil right leader. In constructing matching type of test the descriptions and options must be homogeneous. Back
  178. 178. Answer: C. To avoid ambiguity writes the complete name of persons among the options. Back
  179. 179. Answer: D. Improves defective test items is an example of application level. While options A and B are knowledge level of option C is an example of comprehension level. Back
  180. 180. Answer: B. Statements II, III, and IV are all guidelines in constructing matching type of test. While statement I is a violation in the guidelines of constructing a matching type test items. Back
  181. 181. Answer: A. In constructing true false test item you should avoid verbal clues and specific determiner and avoid taking statements directly from the book. Avoid also: terms denoting indefinite degree or amount, placing items in systematic order, use of always or never, use of negatives in stating the item. Back
  182. 182. Answer: D. Extended essay test is the best way to measure higher order of cognitive learning objectives. It requires student to plan their own answer and express them in their own words. Students have freedom to express their individuality in the answers given and to present more realistic answers. Back
  183. 183. Answer: B . A short-answer item is easy to write and can measure a broad range of learning outcomes, It is not adaptable in measuring complex learning outcomes; it is tedious and time consuming to score. Back
  184. 184. Answer: A . Compute the z-score of each subject, z-score in English = 0.86, z- score in Mathematics = 0.40, z-score in Music =-1.23, z-score in PE = 0.75. The highest value of z-score is English, hence Ritz performed best in English. Back
  185. 185. Answer: D. Ritz Glenn performed best in English, hence he is a linguistic type of learner. Back
  186. 186. Answer: Ritz Glenn performed very poor in Music since the z-score = -1.23 which is the lowest among the four subjects. Back
  187. 187. Answer: B. The scores in Music is the most dispersed. Compute the CV of each subject. The larger the value of CV, the dispersed the scores are. The smaller the value of CV, the scores is less dispersed. CV of English = 4.12%, CV of Music = 6.63%, CV of Mathematics – 5.15%, CV of PE = 4.40%. Back
  188. 188. Answer: A. The scores in English is less dispersed, The CV = 4.12% Back
  189. 189. Answer: B. the mean and the median are equal when the scores are normally distributed. Back
  190. 190. Answer: D. Mode is a kind of measures of central tendency. The other two kinds are mean and median, while A,B,C are all measures of variations. Back
  191. 191. Answer: A. Range is a measure of variations that easily affected by the extreme scores because if there is a changes in either the highest score or lowest score the value of the range also change. Back
  192. 192. Answer: B. Mean easily affected by the extreme score. When the lowest score becomes lower, the mean value will be pulled down and when the highest score becomes higher the mean value will be pulled up. Hence, changes in either lowest or highest score cause a changes in the mean value. Back
  193. 193. Answer: D. Central Tendency error was committed by the rater if the rater tends to give average scores by avoiding scores at the lower end of upper end of the scale. Back
  194. 194. Answer: A. Generosity error was committed by the rater if tends to use the high end of the scale only or the rater tends to give a high grades to the performance of high performing students/s. Back
  195. 195. Answer: C. Checklist is the best assessment techniques to assess the objective,” Plans and designs an experiment to be performed”. Checklist is useful in assessing the performance where the activities best assess by observation rather than testing Back
  196. 196. Answer: B Norm- reference grading means grading on the curve Back
  197. 197. Answer: C. The correlation coefficient of r=0.95 is very high positive correlation. Which means that Mathematics score is highly positive related to English score. Back
  198. 198. Answer: D. The most appropriate to measure student’s ability to organized thoughts and ideas is through the use of essay test. Back
  199. 199. Answer: B. The score distribution is bimodal because there are two modes. The modes are 24 and 39. Back
  200. 200. Answer: C. Vinci set up his laboratory experiment in 2 minutes is an example of criterion reference interpretation. Criterion reference interpretation means that performance of the learner is compared with a certain standard. Back
  201. 201. Answer: A. Lord’s test score is higher than 89% of the class is an example of norm-referenced interpretation. Norm-referenced interpretation means that performance of the learner is compared with the performance of others in the class. Back
  202. 202. Answer: D. Using table of specification in constructing a test items can improve the sampling of contents of the entire test. You can assure your students that the test has content validity when using table of specification in constructing test. Back
  203. 203. Answer: A. The main purpose of testing in teaching is to evaluate the learning progress of the students and assess whether the instruction was effective or not. Back
  204. 204. Answer: C. Avoid using negative words in constructing multiple- choice test they might be overlooked by the test takers. If can’t be avoided bold it or type it in capital letters to give emphasis. Back
  205. 205. Answer: Norm-reference testing means comparing the performance of students to another students. Ranking the students is an example of comparing the performance of students with the performance of other students. Back
  206. 206. Answer: A. To increase the reliability of the test, the teacher should give enough number of test items. Back
  207. 207. Answer: Performance based assessment evaluate complex learning outcomes and encourages the application of learning to real life situation. Back
  208. 208. Answer: D. Negative discrimination means that more students from the lower group got an item correctly than those students from the upper group. Back
  209. 209. Answer: A. Positively skewed distribution means most of the scores are low and below the mean value. Back
  210. 210. Answer: A. Skewed to the left means that most of the scores are above the mean. Hence the graphical representation of the scores is Back
  211. 211. Answer: B. Negatively skewed distribution describe a good performance of the students. The students performed well because most of the examinees got scores above the mean. Back
  212. 212. Answer: D. Using the formula T score = 10z + 50 and solve for z by substitution. The value of z=3, which means that the distance above the mean is three time the standard deviation. Back
  213. 213. Answer: C. Skewed to right means most of the students got scores below the mean which means that the examinees performed very poor or most of the scores are low. Back
  214. 214. Answer: B. Positive discriminating power means that more students in the upper group got the item correctly. Back
  215. 215. Answer: D. Percentile rank of 93 means that 93% of the examinees got a score below an indicated score. Thus, Mary Ann surpassed in performance 93% of those who took the examination. Back
  216. 216. Answer: C. The range of Set A is 15 and the range if Set B is 12. Hence, the scores in Set A are more scattered than those scores in Set B. Back
  217. 217. Answer: C. Determining the effectiveness of the distracters. If a teacher will conduct an item analysis he/she should know the difficulty of an item, discrimination of an item and the attractiveness of the distracters. Back
  218. 218. Answer: B. The difficulty index is 0.15. The level of difficulty is very difficult. Back
  219. 219. Answer: B. 50% of the scores lies in the interval 26-30. Back
  220. 220. Answer: D. There are 34% percent of the scores lower than 21. Back
  221. 221. Answer: B. 75% of the students got item number correctly. The level of difficulty is easy. Back
  222. 222. Answer: C. Conference is a form of meeting or symposium for public discussion of some topic especially one in which the participants form an audience and make presentations and assessments regarding what was viewed. Back
  223. 223. Answer: B. The standard deviation indicates the number of units above or below the mean. The standard deviation in Mathematics is higher than the standard deviation in Science. Hence, Joseph performed well in Mathematics than in Science. Back
  224. 224. Answer: C. Exactly 80% of the students answered the items correctly. Hence teacher Jenny attain her objectives. Back
  225. 225. Answer: A. (90+88+93+95) / 4 = 91.75 Back
  226. 226. Answer: D. The method of grading the involves the present grade and the previous grade to compute the final grade is cumulative method. Back
  227. 227. Answer: B. To increase the difficulty of a multiple- choice test item, make options in the same class or the it must be homogeneous Back
  228. 228. Answer: B. Upper group got more correct answer. Back
  229. 229. Answer: A. More students got the item correctly from the upper group than the lower group. Hence it has a positive discriminating power. Back
  230. 230. Answer: B. Option B is the most effective distracter since more students from the lower group choose the incorrect option. Back
  231. 231. Answer: C. Option C should be revise because more students from the upper group choose this incorrect option. Hence it is not effective. Back
  232. 232. Answer: C. The difficulty index is 50%. Therefore the level of difficulty is moderately difficult. Back
  233. 233. Answer: C. The discriminating index is 7%. (16-14)/60 x 100% =7% Back
  234. 234. Answer: D. Performance based assessment emphasized on both process and product. Hence the statement emphasize only on process is false about performance based assessment. Back
  235. 235. Answer: D. Definition of z- score. Back
  236. 236. Answer: C. Authentic assessment is an assessment applying real life situation. Back
  237. 237. Answer: C. Essay test is the most appropriate tool to measure the synthesizing skills of the students. Back
  238. 238. Answer: A. Marking on a normative basis follow the normal distribution curve. Back
  239. 239. Answer: A. The discriminating index is 0.44 which means that the item is very discriminating and more students from the upper group got the item correctly. Back
  240. 240. Answer: C. The difficulty level is moderately difficult and the discriminating level is low or poor discriminating. Therefor, the item should be revised. Back
  241. 241. Answer: B. The discrimination index is -0.15 which is negative, hence more students form the lower group got the item correctly. Back
  242. 242. Answer: B. 3(5) = x- 80 15 = x -80 15 + 80 = x x =85 z= x-x 5 3= x-80 5 Back
  243. 243. Answer: C. The area of the normal cure from -1SD to +2SD is approximately 68.26%. Illustration, from mean to 1SD is 34.13%; from mean to -1SD is also 34.13%. From 1SD to 2SD is 13.59%; from -1SD to -2SD id 13.59%. Thus, the area under the normal curve is 34.13% + 34.13% + 13.59% + 13.59% = 95.44%. Back
  244. 244. Answer: C. t-test is utilized to test the significant difference between two means when n less than or equal to 30, otherwise use z-test. Back
  245. 245. Answer: D. When the scores concentrated at the left part of the distribution it is skewed to the right while the scores concentrated at the right part of the distribution then it is skewed to the left. Option A, B and C deals with normal distribution. Back
  246. 246. Answer: C. To compare the individual performance of the students z score will be utilized. It tells the number of standard deviations below or above the mean performance. The higher the value of z score the better the performance of a certain student is. Back
  247. 247. Answer: A. Because usually the students are confused between Guidance Counselor and Prefect of Discipline. Back
  248. 248. Answer: D. Because it allows the author the share intimate detail about his life. Back
  249. 249. Answer: A. Because the counselor break confidentiality rule in cases of planned suicide or planned hurting/killing of somebody. Back
  250. 250. Answer: C. Because portfolio is a collection of student output and accomplishment is a period of time. Back

What is marking on a normative basis?

Normative assessments show whether a person is performing at a level equal to, above, or below average. You will often see scores given as a percentile showing the percentage of individuals that score equal or below you on the test. This means the individual's performance is compared to a group.

What is normative testing?

Normative test A normative assessment measures quantifiable personality characteristics on each scales, providing a final score that is then compared against patterns of normality (other test-takers scores, representing the population).

What is a normative score?

Normative scores are ones collected from large numbers of students with diverse backgrounds for the purpose of showing “normal” performance on a specific assessment. Normal performance refers to what scores are typically observed on an assessment by students in different grades.

Which type of test can assess a student's ability to organize and express his ideas?

Essay tests let students display their overall understanding of a topic and demonstrate their ability to think critically, organize their thoughts, and be creative and original.